NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The 30-year-old has been taking olanzapine for the past 5 years for the treatment of schizophrenia. The client, who has a positive family history of DM, is now overweight but is not showing signs of hyperglycemia. When the client asks about the next steps for treatment, how should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Due to the risk of hyperglycemia with olanzapine (Zyprexa), blood glucose testing is needed to determine if medication therapy is indicated.
Question 2 of 5
The new nurse asks the experienced nurse why the first dose of the MMR vaccine is normally given at 12 to 15 months of age and not earlier, except with international travel. Which explanation by the experienced nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The second dose of the MMR vaccine can be given earlier, provided that at least 4 weeks has elapsed since the first dose. However, a second dose is usually not given earlier because sufficient immunity is usually present. B: The chance of developing only measles is greater if the vaccine is given at a younger age because the vaccine may neutralize the passive antibodies. C: The MMR provides active (not passive) immunity. D: Because the MMR vaccine is a live virus, a person develops a mild form of the diseases after administration, stimulating the body to develop immunity. The passively acquired antibodies to measles can interfere with the child's immune response to the vaccine, and no immunity may result.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing information for the 6-month-old who is being given ranitidine. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of ranitidine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: An HR of 110 bpm is normal for a 6-month-old; the range is 80-170 bpm. B: Fever (temperature of 102.7°F) is not an adverse effect of ranitidine. C: Ranitidine is indicated for GERD; spitting up after feedings should improve. If not, then the medication dose may be too low or the medication itself ineffective. Spitting up is not a side effect. D: The nurse should identify that a hard, pebble-like bowel movement every 2 days demonstrates constipation; constipation is an adverse effect of ranitidine (Zantac).
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is concerned that the adolescent may be developing a side effect of methotrexate. Which test or exam results should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Although methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, it does not alter serum levels. B: Methotrexate has no effect on electrolytes. C: An adverse effect of methotrexate (Trexall) is aplastic anemia; thus, the nurse should review the CBC results before administration. D: Methotrexate has no effect on coagulation.
Question 5 of 5
The parent of the adolescent taking chlordiazepoxide for the past 2 months telephones the nurse requesting to have the dose increased. The parent states, “Chlordiazepoxide is being given as directed, but my child's anxiety is increasing.†Which should be the nurse's best interpretation of this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is describing tolerance, a sign of dependence, to chlordiazepoxide (Librium), and the dose needs reevaluation.