NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children.
Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'
Question 2 of 5
What is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1, herpes simplex virus 2, and varicella-zoster virus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1), herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution is needed in renal impairment.
Choice A, HIV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the drug of choice for HIV.
Choice C, CMV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the preferred treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.
Choice D, Influenza A viruses, is incorrect as acyclovir is not used to treat influenza viruses.
Question 3 of 5
What is appropriate care for a client with neutropenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client has neutropenia, they have low white blood cell levels, which increases the risk of infections due to a weakened immune system. Wearing a mask when out of the room is crucial to reduce the risk of exposure to respiratory infections. Avoiding fresh fruits and vegetables is also necessary as they may contain harmful pathogens. Having a private room helps minimize exposure to pathogens and ensures that visitors are carefully screened for any signs of illness. Routine hand washing is essential to prevent the spread of infections in the healthcare setting, but the most direct measure to protect the client from potential infections is wearing a mask when out of the room.
Question 4 of 5
A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice
A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice
C) and syphilis (choice
D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.
Question 5 of 5
A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria.
Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure.
Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure.
Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.