NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Pharmacology Cheat Sheet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Keflex 250 mg PO q6h is ordered for an adult. The nurse notes that the client's history indicates that she has an allergy to penicillin. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is often a cross-allergy between penicillin and cephalosporins like Keflex. The nurse should first determine the type of reaction to assess if Keflex is safe.
Question 2 of 5
A client who has Hodgkin's disease receives a weekly IV dose of nitrogen mustard. Which nursing order is most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nitrogen mustard causes bone marrow suppression and nausea; high fluid intake helps flush the drug and prevent dehydration.
Question 3 of 5
To which client would the nurse question administering the osmotic diuretic mannitol (Osmitrol)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Widening pulse pressure suggests increased intracranial pressure, a contraindication for mannitol due to potential brain herniation. Edema or neurological signs are indications.
Question 4 of 5
The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is scheduled for bowel resection in the morning. Which medication should the nurse question administering to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ticlopidine increases bleeding risk, contraindicated pre-surgery. Antibiotics, antidiabetics, or laxatives are appropriate or less risky.
Question 5 of 5
The client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which health-care provider order should the nurse anticipate in treating this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from B12 deficiency; IM B12 is standard treatment due to absorption issues. Iron, folic acid, or thiamine do not address the primary cause.