NCLEX-PN
MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Group B Strep lives in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of the female population. It is considered normal flora and is not a sexually transmitted disease. The same woman can test positive in one pregnancy and negative in another, which is why testing is done every pregnancy, usually within 5 weeks of expected delivery. If a woman tests positive for Group B Strep, she will be given antibiotics during delivery to greatly reduce the risk of complications for her and her baby.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse observes that the client being treated with antipsychotics is unsteady while standing and walking and that the client's hands are trembling slightly. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client is experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) of pseudoparkinsonism, requiring an antiparkinsonian agent like trihexyphenidyl.
Question 3 of 5
A child diagnosed with ADHD is to receive a total of 20 mg of dextroamphetamine daily in two divided doses. The dextroamphetamine on hand is supplied in 5-mg tablets. How many tablet(s) should the nurse administer for the morning dose?
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: Calculation: 20 mg daily/ 2 doses = 10 mg per dose; 10 mg/ 5 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.
Question 4 of 5
The client has been receiving clonidine 0.1 mg via transdermal patch once every 7 days. The NA removes the patch with morning cares. Eight hours later, the nurse discovers that the clonidine patch is no longer present. Which assessment finding should be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Although a skin tear is concerning and may have occurred during removal, it is not the most concerning. B: Headache can occur from the abrupt removal of clonidine but is not the most concerning. C: Clonidine (Catapres) is an antihypertensive medication. Rebound hypertension occurs from abrupt withdrawal. Immediate intervention is required to lower the BP. D: Tachycardia is an adverse effect of clonidine.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to the child in severe pain. The child has an IV infusion of D5W at 50 mL/hr through a PICC. Which intervention is best when administering the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Unnecessary IV disconnections increase the risk for infection. Morphine sulfate is compatible with D5W. B: Morphine sulfate can be administered into a PICC access device. C: Administering undiluted morphine sulfate to a child increases the risk of adverse effects. D: The nurse should dilute the morphine sulfate before administration to prevent too-rapid administration and adverse effects. A single dose should be given over 4 to 5 minutes.