NCLEX-PN
MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The 11-year-old with type 1 DM is learning to use insulin pens for basal-bolus insulin therapy with both a very-long-acting insulin and rapid-acting insulin. Which action by the child should indicate to the nurse that additional teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A:
To ensure that the medication is administered with the insulin pens, the pen is held in place for 10 seconds after delivery of the medication. This action is correct. B: Insulin lispro (Humalog) is rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 5 to 10 minutes. This action is correct. C: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is very-long-acting insulin administered once daily and is not used for covering the number of carbohydrates eaten. This action indicates the child needs additional teaching. D: The rapid-acting insulin lispro (Humalog) is not needed if the glucose level is WNL. Turkey does not contain carbohydrates; insulin is administered to cover only the carbohydrates eaten. This action is correct.
Question 2 of 5
The mother asks the nurse why the anticonvulsant valproic acid is being prescribed for her adolescent who is beginning therapy for control of aggressive behaviors. The nurse's response is based on the fact that valproic acid is helpful in reducing manic and impulsive behavior by what mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Valproic acid (Depakote) increases levels of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
Question 3 of 5
The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes.
Question 4 of 5
The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be least appropriate for pain management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is contraindicated for pain management in pancreatitis because it causes spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
Question 5 of 5
The client with GERD is taking cimetidine. Which serum laboratory finding should the nurse determine is most concerning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: Elevation of liver enzymes should be most concerning because drug-induced hepatitis is an adverse effect of cimetidine (Tagamet H
B) therapy. B: Histamine-2 receptor blockers can cause myelosuppression including thrombocytopenia. A decreased (not increased) platelet count would be concerning. C: Renal adverse effects of the drug include elevated (not decreased) creatinine and BUN. D: Cimetidine can increase (not decrease) secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary, inducing gynecomastia.