NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (
Choice
B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (
Choice
C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (
Choice
D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?

A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.' B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen. C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia. D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life.
Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\n
Choice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition.
Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment.
Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.

Question 3 of 5

Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that

A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition.
Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate.
Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection.
Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps.
Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.

Question 4 of 5

A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (
Choice
A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (
Choice
B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (
Choice
D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.

Question 5 of 5

A 3-year-old had a hip spica cast applied 2 hours ago. In order to facilitate drying, the nurse should

A. Expose the cast to air and turn the child frequently B. Use a heat lamp to reduce the drying time C. Handle the cast with the abductor bar D. Turn the child as little as possible

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: After applying a hip spica cast, it is important to facilitate drying by exposing the cast to air and turning the child frequently. This helps promote even drying and prevents complications such as skin breakdown. Using a heat lamp can cause burns and is not recommended. Handling the cast with the abductor bar does not aid in drying the cast. Turning the child as little as possible is incorrect as regular turning is crucial to prevent complications.

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram - Nurselytic

Nurselytic

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN