NCLEX-RN
Free NCLEX RN Questions for Med Surg Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client undergoing chemotherapy has a white blood cell count of 2300/mm³; hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL; platelet count of 80,000/mm³ and potassium of 3.8. Which of the following should take priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fever of 101°F in a neutropenic client (WBC 2300/mm³) indicates a high risk of infection, which is a priority due to potential for rapid deterioration.
Question 2 of 5
After a laminectomy, the client states, 'The physician said that I can do anything I want to.' Which of the following client-stated activities indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sweeping involves twisting and bending, which can strain the surgical site post-laminectomy.
Question 3 of 5
The client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) to determine the location of the renal calculi. Which of the following measures would be most important for the nurse to include in pretest preparation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking for iodine allergy is critical for IVP due to the use of iodine-based contrast, which can cause severe allergic reactions.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse assesses a 40-year-old female client with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's phenomenon) involving her right hand. The nurse notes the information in the progress notes, as shown below. From these findings, the nurse should formulate which priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ineffective tissue perfusion (peripheral) is the priority nursing diagnosis in Raynaud's phenomenon, as vasospasm reduces blood flow to the extremities, causing ischemia. This underlies symptoms like numbness or pallor. Pain, sensory changes, or skin integrity risks are secondary to perfusion deficits.
Question 5 of 5
A client with advanced ovarian cancer takes 150 mg of long-acting morphine orally every 12 hours for abdominal pain. When the client develops a small bowel obstruction, the physician discontinues the oral morphine and begins morphine 6 mg/hour I.V. After calculating the equianalgesic conversion from oral to intravenous morphine, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The equianalgesic conversion from 150 mg oral morphine every 12 hours (300 mg/day oral) to I.V. morphine (1:3 ratio) is approximately 100 mg/day I.V., or 4.2 mg/hour. The ordered 6 mg/hour is too high, and the nurse should contact the physician to adjust the dose.