NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever.
Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (
Choice
A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (
Choice
B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (
Choice
C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (
Choice
A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (
Choice
B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (
Choice
D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.
Question 4 of 5
A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.
Question 5 of 5
A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed.
Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor.
Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected.
Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.