NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection.
Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice
B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice
C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice
D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has a pacemaker. A pacemaker is a contraindication to MRI scanning due to the interference with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner. This interference can potentially deactivate the pacemaker, putting the patient at risk. Patients with cardiac implantable electronic devices (CIE
D) are at risk for inappropriate device therapy, device heating/movement, and arrhythmia during MRI. This necessitates special precautions such as scheduling in a CIED blocked slot or having electrophysiology nurse or technician support. It is important to ensure that the patient's pacemaker is MRI conditional before proceeding with the scan. The other choices, such as being allergic to shellfish, suffering from claustrophobia, or taking antipsychotic medication, are not direct contraindications to undergoing an MRI scan for suspected lung cancer.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (
Choice
D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (
Choice
A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (
Choice
B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
Question 4 of 5
A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with Down syndrome commonly have certain physical characteristics, such as a simian crease (single transverse palmar crease), brachycephaly (shortened front-to-back skull dimension), and hypotonicity (low muscle tone). Oily skin is not a characteristic associated with Down syndrome; instead, individuals with Down syndrome often have dry skin.
Therefore, oily skin is the correct answer in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection.
Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice
B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice
C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice
D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.