NCLEX-PN
Pharmacology Questions NCLEX Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 60-year-old client has been hospitalized for deep vein thrombosis. The client is to be discharged on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO daily. Which statement that the client makes indicates the best understanding of the medication routine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin requires regular INR monitoring via blood tests to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation levels.
Question 2 of 5
A 13-month-old child is admitted to the emergency room with salicylate poisoning. Her mother found her beside the empty bottle of adult aspirin. She says there were 'about 10' aspirin left in the bottle. What manifestations would the nurse most expect to see in the child?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Salicylate poisoning causes metabolic acidosis, leading to hyperventilation, and stimulates the CNS, causing fever (hyperpyrexia).
Question 3 of 5
The client in end-stage renal disease is a Jehovah's Witness. The HCP orders erythropoietin (Epogen), a biologic response modifier, subcutaneously for anemia. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epogen is synthetic, not blood-derived, so it’s acceptable for Jehovah’s Witnesses. Administer as ordered; questioning, minister consultation, or consent are unnecessary.
Question 4 of 5
Penicillin V potassium (Pen-Vee-K) 500 mg PO qid is ordered for an adult client. He reports that he took penicillin for the first time two months ago. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client does not have a history of allergic response to penicillin, so there is no need to skin test or withhold the medication. However, allergic responses often occur after the first administration.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is to administer a subcutaneous (SC) injection. Which technique is correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The skin should be pinched, and a 25-gauge needle should be inserted at a 45-degree angle. Answer 1 describes an IM injection. Answer 3 describes an intradermal injection.