NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (
Choice
A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (
Choice
B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (
Choice
C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.
Question 3 of 5
A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed.
Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor.
Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected.
Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haemophilus aegyptius. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius (Hae) is a causative agent of acute and often purulent conjunctivitis, more commonly known as pink eye. Yersinia pestis, Helicobacter pylori, and Vibrio cholerae are not associated with conjunctivitis. Yersinia pestis causes the plague, Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric ulcers, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs.
Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.