Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Questions with Detailed Explanations Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

After a client undergoes a contraction stress test that is negative, which of the following should the nurse assess next?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A negative contraction stress test indicates no fetal distress, so the nurse should next ensure contractions have ceased to prevent preterm labor. The other assessments are less immediate.

Question 2 of 5

A 30-year-old client is hospitalized with a fractured femur, which is being treated with skeletal traction. He states that he has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate at this time?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake promotes bowel motility, addressing constipation in a client immobilized by traction.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone a nephrectomy. Which of the following interventions is most important in the immediate postoperative period?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is critical post-nephrectomy to assess the function of the remaining kidney.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed valsartan (Diovan). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Valsartan, an ARB, can cause hyperkalemia, requiring monitoring of potassium levels.

Question 5 of 5

After a client undergoes a contraction stress test that is negative, which of the following should the nurse assess next?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A negative contraction stress test indicates no fetal distress, so the nurse should next ensure contractions have ceased to prevent preterm labor. The other assessments are less immediate.

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