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Questions 158

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Question 1 of 5

While obtaining information about the client's current medication use, the nurse learns that the client takes ginkgo to improve mental alertness. The nurse should tell the client to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ginkgo can increase bleeding risk by inhibiting platelet aggregation, so clients should report signs of bruising or bleeding to their doctor.

Question 2 of 5

A client with severe PIH receiving MgSO4 is placed in a quiet, darkened room. The nurse bases this action on the following understanding:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The client may be anxious and hyperresponsive to stimuli but not necessarily restless. This is not a physiological response to an elevated blood pressure in PIH. The nurse must know the nursing measures that decrease the potential for convulsions. A quiet, darkened room decreases stimuli and promotes rest. External stimuli might induce a convulsion but are not annoying to the client with PIH.

Question 3 of 5

Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The recommended range is 70-120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C,
D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus. Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. The client’s heart rate is 58 beats per minute. What is the nurse’s best action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A heart rate of 58 bpm is below the threshold (60 bpm) for digoxin administration, as it may worsen bradycardia. Holding the dose and notifying the physician (
B) is safest. Administering (
A), reducing (
C), or delaying (
D) is inappropriate.

Question 5 of 5

The client is admitted with a diagnosis of molar pregnancy. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Molar pregnancy involves abnormal trophoblastic tissue not a viable fetus and can cause significant vaginal bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding is the most appropriate intervention. Cesarean delivery tocolytics and fetal monitoring are not indicated.

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