NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
Following hip replacement surgery, an elderly client is ordered to begin ambulation with a walker.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements by the nurse is BEST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) full weight bearing or flexion of the hip greater than 90° should be avoided for four to six weeks (2) correct-intact rubber caps should be present on walker legs to prevent accidents (3) full weight bearing or flexion of the hip greater than 90° should be avoided for four to six weeks (4) full weight bearing or flexion of the hip greater than 90° should be avoided for four to six weeks
Extract:
An eight-year-old with cystic fibrosis (CF).
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following dietary requirements should be considered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) contains high fat (2) correct-impaired inTest inal absorption due to cystic fibrosis necessitates a diet higher in protein and calories; fat is decreased because it may interfere with absorption of other nutrients (3) not adequate for this child (4) contains high fat
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
An adult is admitted to the unit with a fractured femur and will be in Buck's extension traction for several days. The client tells the nurse that she has all of the following. Which is likely to cause the client the most problems at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hiatal hernia can be exacerbated by prolonged immobility in traction, increasing reflux and discomfort. Hypertension, finger osteoarthritis, and high cholesterol are less directly impacted by traction.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours should observe for signs of which overall imbalance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vomiting causes loss of acid from the stomach. Prolonged vomiting can result in excess loss of acid and lead to metabolic alkalosis. Findings include irritability, increased activity, hyperactive reflexes, muscle twitching and elevated pulse.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client’s EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent or coupled PVCs, as it suppresses ventricular arrhythmias that could lead to ventricular tachycardia. Atropine treats bradycardia, isoproterenol is used for heart block, and verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker for supraventricular arrhythmias.