NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 25 mg IV push has been ordered for a patient. Before administering this medication to the patient, the nurse should check the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: is very important to determine absolute patency of the vein; extravasation will cause necrosis
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of ulcerative colitis about mesalamine (Asacol). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fever or sore throat may indicate bone marrow suppression, a serious mesalamine side effect. Options A, C, and D are incorrect: grapefruit juice is irrelevant, stopping the medication risks relapse, and it can be taken with meals.
Extract:
A client who is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline) q6h has a blood pressure of 90/60.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following nursing actions would be MOST appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Is there an appropriate assessment? No. Determine the outcome of the implementations. (1) correct-BP of 90/60 is too low for an additional dose of medication, withholding the medication and checking with the doctor is appropriate (2) assessment, appropriate nursing action for a client on an antihypertensive that has diuretic effects due to increased blood flow to the kidney, not a priority in this instance (3) unnecessary (4) appropriate nursing action for a client on an antihypertensive that has diuretic effects due to increased blood flow to the kidney, not a priority in this instance
Extract:
A 26-year-old woman has missed her menstrual period. The client's last menstrual period began May 8 and ended May 12.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse determines that her EDC (estimated date of confinement) is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Remember Naegele's rule. (1) should add seven days (2) correct-when using the Naegele rule, add seven days to first day of last menstrual period and subtract three months (3) incorrectly started with the last day of the menstrual cycle (4) incorrect
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The nurse performs an assessment of an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with scoliosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scoliosis causes lateral spinal curvature, leading to thoracic asymmetry. Waddling gait is associated with hip issues, edema with circulatory problems, and a protruding sternum with pectus carinatum, none of which are typical of scoliosis.