NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a client with organic brain syndrome in a long-term care facility.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following actions by the nurse is BEST?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: The topic of the question is unstated. Read the answer choices for clues. (1) may not remember who or where he is (2) not as important as answer choice #4 (3) even with orientation, the client soon forgets (4) correct-geriatric client should be encouraged to talk about his life and important things in the past because he has recent memory loss
Extract:
A client is going to be taking imipramine (Tofranil) at home following discharge.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following immediately to the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) correct-possible side effects of
Tofranil, a tricyclic antidepressant medication, which can be resolved by altering the dosage or changing the medication (2) describes side effects of antidepressants, which client can learn to manage at home without changing the medication (3) describes side effects of a different category of medications (4) describes side effects of a different category of medications
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV vancomycin for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Facial flushing and itching suggest red man syndrome, a serious reaction to vancomycin, requiring immediate slowing of the infusion or antihistamine administration. Options A, B, and D are normal: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm, and urine output 50 mL/hour are stable.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV gentamicin for a gram-negative infection. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL indicates renal impairment, a serious complication of gentamicin due to nephrotoxicity, requiring immediate evaluation. Options B, C, and D are normal or less concerning: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, and temperature 99.5°F are stable.
Question 5 of 5
The physician has prescribed hydralazine (Apresoline) for a client with acute glomerulonephritis. Which finding indicates that the drug is having the desired effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Apresoline (hydralazine) is an antihypertensive; therefore, a decrease in blood pressure indicates the medication is working. Answers A, B, and D indicate that the overall condition of the client is improving, but they are not the result of the medication.