NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A woman calls the physician's office stating that her 16-year-old daughter took 20 or 30 sleeping pills. The mother tells the nurse that her daughter is awake and says, 'Leave me alone. I just want to die.' How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A suicide attempt with sleeping pills requires immediate emergency care to prevent overdose complications. Other responses delay critical intervention.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of hemophilia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Factor replacement therapy stops bleeding in hemophilia, relieving joint pain from hemarthrosis. Cold compresses are used, exercise worsens bleeding, and analgesics are supportive.
Extract:
A client who has overdosed on a large quantity of diazepam (Valium).
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following nursing actions should take priority during the first several days of this client's inpatient treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Think Maslow. (1) psychosocial, can be done after the client has been medically stabilized (2) psychosocial, can be done after the client has been medically stabilized (3) correct-physical, because of potentially life-threatening complications of depressant overdose such as respiratory failure, pulmonary edema, and seizures, nurse's priority is observation and documentation of vital signs (4) psychosocial, can be done after the client has been medically stabilized
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
The best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Newly diagnosed diabetics need to learn about their disease, medications, glucose testing, possibly insulin injections, foot care, sick-day plans, and so forth.
Question 5 of 5
A 48-year-old woman is diagnosed with a tumor of the pituitary gland and has a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The nurse plans care for the patient two days after surgery. It is MOST important for the nurse to monitor the patient's
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy risks diabetes insipidus from ADH disruption, detected by low urine specific gravity. Options A, B, and D are less specific.