NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Prep Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which client would be at greatest risk for a fat emboli following a fracture?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fat emboli occur more frequently with long bone or pelvic fractures and usually in young adults age 20-30. Answers A, B, and D are not high-risk incidents and do not fall in the greater risk category, so they are incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for cefuroxime 30 mg/kg/day PO in 2 divided doses. The client weighs 35 lb (15.9 kg). The nurse has cefuroxime 250 mg/5 mL available. How many mL should the nurse administer to the client with each dose? Record your answer using 1 decimal place.
Correct Answer: 2.9
Rationale:
Total daily dose: 30 mg/kg × 15.9 kg = 477 mg/day. Divided into 2 doses: 477 ÷ 2 = 238.5 mg/dose. Using 250 mg/5 mL: (238.5 mg ÷ 250 mg) × 5 mL = 4.77 mL. Per 2 doses: 4.77 ÷ 2 = 2.385, rounded to 2.9 mL per dose.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The path by which a microorganism enters the body is the portal of entry. A vector is a carrier of disease, a source (like bad water or food) can be a reservoir of disease.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is talking with the parent of a 14-month-old client who was exposed to measles 2 days ago. The client has not received the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-exposure MMR vaccination within 72 hours can prevent measles in unvaccinated individuals. Monitoring temperature or assuming no symptoms means no infection is incorrect, as measles has an incubation period. Measles spreads via respiratory droplets, not just rash contact.
Extract:
Laboratory results
Glucose (fasting)
70-110 mg/dL
(3.9-6.1 mmol/L)
180 mg/dL
(10.0 mmol/L)
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer insulin aspart subcutaneously at 0700 to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of following actions would be a priority for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin aspart is rapid-acting, peaking within 1-3 hours. Administering it at 0700 requires breakfast within 15 minutes to prevent hypoglycemia. Site selection is routine, rechecking glucose later is secondary, and teaching is not urgent.