NCLEX-RN
Free NCLEX RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
When discussing the relationship between exercise and insulin requirements, a 26-year-old client with IDDM should be instructed that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exercise decreased the blood sugar by promoting uptake of glucose by the muscles. Consequently, less insulin is needed to metabolize ingested carbohydrates. Extra food may be required for extra activity.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a pulmonary embolism who is receiving Lovenox (enoxaparin). The nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin, a low-molecular-weight heparin, increases bleeding risk, requiring monitoring for signs like bruising or hematuria. Hypertension, tachypnea, and fever are not primary concerns.
Question 3 of 5
To prevent fungal infections of the mouth and throat, the nurse should teach clients on inhaled steroids to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: It is sufficient to rinse the plastic holders with warm water at least once per day. It is important to rinse the mouth after each use to minimize the risk of fungal infections by reducing the droplets of the glucocorticoid left in the oral cavity. Antacids act by neutralizing or reducing gastric acid, thus decreasing the pH of the stomach. 'Neutralizing' the oral mucosa prior to inhalation of a steroid inhaler does not minimize the risk of fungal infections. Rinsing prior to the use of the glucocorticoid will not eliminate the droplets left on the oral mucous membranes following the use of the inhaler.
Question 4 of 5
A female client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of severe right-sided abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. She states that her last menstrual period was about 2 months ago. A positive pregnancy test result and ultrasonography confirm an ectopic pregnancy. The nurse could best explain to the client that her condition is caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The embryo itself may develop normally in the first several weeks of an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy in the fallopian tube causes severe pain owing to the size of the growing embryo within the narrow lumen of the tube, causing distention and finally rupture within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy. The Fallopian tube may either be normal or contain adhesions caused by a history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal surgeries, neither of which are congenital causes. An ectopic pregnancy does not involve a dysfunctional placenta, but the implantation of the blastocyst outside the uterus.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving methotrexate. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Methotrexate can cause bone marrow suppression. A WBC of 4,000/mm3 (
A) indicates leukopenia, increasing infection risk, and is most concerning. Platelets (
B), hemoglobin (
C), and creatinine (
D) are within normal limits.