NCLEX Questions, NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 158

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

When administering phenytoin (Dilantin) to a child, the nurse should be aware that a toxic effect of phenytoin therapy is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale:
Stephens-Johnson syndrome is a toxic effect of phenytoin. Folate deficiency is a side effect of phenytoin, but not a toxic effect. Leukopenic aplastic anemia is a toxic effect of carbamazepine (Tegretol). Granulocytosis and nephrosis are toxic effects of trimethadione (Tridione).

Question 2 of 5

Prenatal clients are routinely monitored for early signs of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). For the prenatal client, which of the following blood pressure changes from baseline would be most significant for the nurse to report as indicative of PIH?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: PIH is indicated by a systolic increase of 30 mm Hg or diastolic increase of 15 mm Hg; 114/70 to 140/88 shows a 26 mm Hg systolic and 18 mm Hg diastolic change, most significant for PIH.

Question 3 of 5

In an interview for suspected child abuse, the child's mother openly discusses her feelings. She feels her husband is too aggressive in disciplining their child. The child's father states, 'Being a school custodian, I see kids every day that are bad because they did not get enough discipline at home. That will not happen to our child.' Based on this remark, the nurse would make the following nursing diagnosis:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: There is no evidence of fear as the child is unable to communicate. There is actual injury, but the parents have not yet admitted causing the child's injuries. This diagnosis is incomplete. There is no specific ineffective coping behavior identified in this nursing diagnosis. Altered family process best describes the family dynamics in this situation. The parents have admitted severe disciplinary action.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following describes a positive Kernig's sign?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is pain or resistance when flexing the hip and extending the knee often indicating meningeal irritation (e.g. meningitis). The other options describe different symptoms or signs unrelated to Kernig’s.

Question 5 of 5

An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with hemophilia. Which of the following diagnostic blood studies is characteristically abnormal in this disorder?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Partial thromboplastic time measures activity of thromboplastin, which depends on the intrinsic clotting factors deficient in children who are hemophiliacs. Platelet counts are normal in hemophilia. Hemophilia does not affect the complete blood count. Bleeding times are normal in hemophiliacs. They measure the time interval for the bleeding from small superficial wounds to cease.

Similar Questions

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium


$150/ 90 days