NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The parents of a one-month-old boy bring their son to the clinic for evaluation of a possible right dislocated hip.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unilateral hip dislocation causes uneven gluteal folds and thigh creases, with deeper and longer folds on the affected side due to hip displacement. Limited abduction (not adduction), shortened limb length, and variable rotation are more typical findings.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is to insert an indwelling catheter in a male. Which action is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Washing hands before catheter insertion is critical to maintain a sterile field and prevent infection. Cleansing the meatus occurs after hand washing, a 45-degree angle is incorrect (90 degrees is typical), and the balloon is inflated post-insertion.
Extract:
A 46-year-old man with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) should buy shoes in the afternoon when feet are larger than in the morning (2) correct-feet enlarge with age, don't break in shoes all at one time, have measurements for shoes taken while standing (feet are larger) (3) buy correct shoe size (4) leather shoes recommended because they 'breathe', vinyl could cause foot to perspire and aggravate fungal infections
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is supervising care given to a group of patients on the unit. The nurse observes a staff member entering a patient's room wearing gown and gloves. The nurse knows that the staff member is caring for which of the following patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: acute viral infection; requires contact precautions; assign to private room or with other RSV-infected children
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is a correctly stated nursing diagnosis for a client with abruptio placentae?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Abruptio placentae causes hemorrhage, leading to fluid volume deficit, a major nursing concern. The other options are incorrectly stated or irrelevant: infection is not typical, ‘potential’ diagnoses are not standard, and fibrinogen depletion is not the primary issue.