NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer IV cefazolin to a newly admitted client with cellulitis. The nurse notes the client is allergic to amoxicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with an allergy to penicillin antibiotics (eg, amoxicillin) can experience a cross-sensitivity reaction
to cephalosporin antibiotics (eg, cefazolin) because the medication molecules are structurally similar. The
nurse should first obtain more information by asking about the type of reaction the client experienced because
allergic reactions can range from mild to severe (Option 4)
Cephalosporins can be safely administered to clients with a history of mild allergic reaction to penicillin (eg,
rash) but are contraindicated for clients with a history of anaphylaxis.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving lithium carbonate 600 mg T.I.D. to treat bipolar disorder. Which of these indicate early signs of toxicity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vomiting, diarrhea, and lethargy are early signs of lithium toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with cholelithiasis and acute cholecystitis. The client suddenly vomits 250 mL of greenish-yellow emesis and reports severe right upper quadrant pain with radiation to the right shoulder. Which intervention would have the highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute cholecystitis with vomiting and severe pain suggests gallbladder inflammation or obstruction, requiring immediate cessation of oral intake (NPO status,
B) to prevent further stimulation and complications like perforation. Promethazine (
A) and pain medication (
D) are supportive but secondary. A nasogastric tube (
C) may be considered later but is not the priority.
Question 4 of 5
A visiting family member of a hospitalized client reports sudden onset of a headache and numbness in half of the body. The visitor asks the nurse to take a blood pressure reading. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden headache and hemibody numbness suggest a possible stroke, a medical emergency requiring immediate evaluation. Initiating protocol to transfer the visitor to the emergency department (
B) ensures timely care. Lying down (
A), taking blood pressure (
C), or calling a provider (
D) delays critical intervention.
Question 5 of 5
The client admitted with angina is given a prescription for nitroglycerine. The client should be instructed to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client should leave the medication in the brown bottle because light deteriorates the medication. The supply should be replenished every six months, so answer A is incorrect. One tablet should be taken every five minutes times three, so answer B is incorrect. If the pain does not subside, the client should report to the emergency room. The medication should be taken sublingually and should not be crushed, so answer D is incorrect.