NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN SATA Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is delivering care to a client who is diagnosed with toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which complication of this syndrome should the nurse monitor the client for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: TSS is caused by infection and is often associated with tampon use. DIC is a complication of TSS. The nurse monitors the client for signs of this complication, and notifies the primary health care provider promptly if signs and symptoms are noted. The other options are not complications of TSS.
Question 2 of 5
A client on a psychiatric care unit approaches the nurse and complains of muscle spasms in his neck, stiffness in other muscles, and that his eyes are rolling upward. The client had two p.r.n. doses of haloperidol (Haldol) in the last 6 hours. Of the drugs that have been ordered for the client as needed (see chart), the nurse should administer:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dystonic adverse effects of haloperidol, especially oculogyric crises, are painful and frightening. I.M. benztropine is the fastest and most effective drug for managing dystonia. Lorazepam is an antianxiety medication and is not effective for treatment of dystonia. Although amantadine and diphenhydramine can be used for extrapyramidal symptoms, oral medications do not work as quickly, and amantadine may worsen psychotic symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer 500 mL of an I.V. solution to a child over 12 hours via tubing that delivers microdrips at 60 gtt/mL. At what rate should the nurse infuse the solution?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calculate: 500 mL over 12 hours = 41.67 mL/hour. For microdrip (60 gtt/mL), 41.67 mL/hour ×60 gtt/mL = 2500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 41.67 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute.
Question 4 of 5
On the first postpartum day, the nurse is caring for a primiparous client who has recently emigrated from Japan to the United States and speaks only a little English. The nurse observes that the client has been bottle-feeding her neonate on occasion, but most of the neonatal care is being performed by the client's mother-in-law. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing whether the mother-in-law's involvement is a cultural practice respects the client's background and avoids misjudging normal family dynamics.
Question 5 of 5
Sertraline is prescribed for a client in the treatment of depression. Before administering the medication, the nurse reviews the client's record and consults with the primary health care provider when which finding is noted?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sertraline is a serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Serious potentially fatal reactions may occur if sertraline is administered concurrently with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Phenelzine sulfate is an MAOI. MAOIs should be stopped at least 14 days before sertraline therapy. Sertraline should also be stopped at least 14 days before MAOI therapy. The remaining options are not concerns associated with the administration of this medication.