NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of epilepsy who is receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) 200 mg PO bid. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 3,000/mm^3 indicates leukopenia, a serious carbamazepine side effect. Options B, C, and D are normal.
Question 2 of 5
An adult who has COPD is to start receiving oxygen at home. What teaching is essential for this client and his family?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Adjusting oxygen flow incrementally for shortness of breath ensures safety, as fixed 6 L/min may be excessive, synthetic clothes increase static risk, and carpet covering is unnecessary.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is administering terbutaline (Brethine) to a client in labor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Terbutaline causes maternal tachycardia, and a pulse of 144 indicates a significant side effect. Withholding the medication is the priority to prevent further complications like pulmonary edema. Reducing the dose, administering, or delaying without action is unsafe.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who had a cholecystectomy. Which of the following observations is MOST important for the nurse to report to the next shift?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Decreased breath sounds suggest atelectasis or pneumonia, serious post-cholecystectomy complications due to reduced ventilation from pain. Options A, B, and C are routine: resting is expected, absent bowel sounds are normal post-surgery, and IV rate is standard.
Question 5 of 5
An adult is admitted with pernicious anemia. Which factor in the client's history is most likely related to the development of pernicious anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gastrectomy removes the stomach's intrinsic factor-producing cells, leading to vitamin B12 malabsorption, a primary cause of pernicious anemia.