Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Practice Questions with Answers Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone a lumbar puncture. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate in the immediate post-procedure period?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client flat for 4-6 hours post-lumbar puncture reduces the risk of spinal headache due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse collecting data from the client is providing instructions regarding a new prescription for disulfiram. Which datum is important for the nurse to obtain before beginning the administration of this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Disulfiram may be used as an adjunct treatment for selected clients with chronic alcoholism who want to remain in a state of enforced sobriety. Clients must abstain from alcohol intake for at least 12 hours before the initial dose of the medication is administered.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to determine when the last alcoholic drink was consumed. The medication is used with caution in clients with diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, cerebral damage, nephritis, and hepatic disease. It is also contraindicated in severe heart disease, psychosis, or hypersensitivity related to the medication.

Question 3 of 5

A multigravid client at 34 weeks' gestation who is leaking amniotic fluid has just been hospitalized with a diagnosis of preterm premature rupture of membranes and preterm labor. The client's contractions are 20 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds. Her cervix is dilated to 2 cm. The nurse reviews the physician orders (see chart). Which of the following orders should the nurse initiate first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fetal and contraction monitoring is the priority to assess fetal well-being and labor progression, guiding further interventions.

Question 4 of 5

A 70-year-old, previously well client asks the nurse, 'I notice I have tremors. Is this just normal for my age?' The best response for the nurse to make is which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Tremors in a 70-year-old are not necessarily normal and may indicate conditions like Parkinson's or medication side effects, requiring physician evaluation. Orange juice or blood pressure checks are not directly relevant.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell anemia who is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which of the following interventions is the priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hydration is the priority in vaso-occlusive crisis to reduce blood viscosity and promote circulation, preventing further sickling and complications.

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