NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Free Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected pneumonia. Which of the following findings would support this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A productive cough with green sputum indicates a bacterial infection, common in pneumonia. Clear nasal discharge (
A) suggests a viral infection, abdominal pain (
C) is nonspecific, and a dry cough (
D) is less typical for bacterial pneumonia.
Question 2 of 5
Order: Nitroglycerine 50 mg in 250 mL normal saline, infuse at 10 mcg/min. Calculate the rate in mL/h.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 50 mg = 50,000 mcg. 250 mL ÷ 50,000 mcg = 0.005 mL/mcg. 10 mcg/min × 0.005 mL/mcg × 60 min/h = 3 mL/h. Other options are incorrect.
Extract:
The nurse assesses a patient's IV site and finds that it is red, hot, and tender to touch.
Question 3 of 5
The most appropriate first action is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Signs of phlebitis or infection require stopping the infusion and removing the IV to prevent complications.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
The nurse caring for a client with mania understands that the client's behavior is a way of avoiding feelings of despair. The expression of behaviors opposite to those being experienced is an example of which defense mechanism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Reaction formation is the outward expression of feelings that are opposite to those experienced. Answer A refers to the development of physical symptoms in response to inner conflict, so it is incorrect. Answer B refers to the defense mechanism used by those with borderline personality disorder, so it is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it's the channeling of unacceptable thoughts and behaviors into socially acceptable behaviors.
Extract:
A patient with history of asthma presented himself to the outpatient clinic due to feeling of tightness on his chest, audible wheezing and mild shortness of breath. Upon arrival at the clinic his peak flow was at 480 liters/minute but in an hour of arrival, his peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute.
Question 5 of 5
What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in peak flow indicates worsening asthma. Administering albuterol inhalation is the first action to relieve bronchospasm.