NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The initial treatment for a client with a liquid chemical burn injury is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The use of large amounts of water to flush the area is recommended for chemical burns to dilute and remove the chemical. Neutralizing solutions may extend the burn, calcium chloride is not indicated, and lanolin is not beneficial initially.
Question 2 of 5
A 50-year-old depressed client has recently lost his job. He has been reluctant to leave his hospital room. Nursing care would include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client should be encouraged to attend the unit activities. The nurse and client should choose a few activities for the client to attend that will be positive experiences for him. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss his feelings and to begin to deal with the depression. Depressed persons often have little appetite and poor fluid intake. Constipation is common. A calm, consistent level of stimuli is most effective. Sensory deprivation and overstimulation should be avoided.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a hip fracture who is in Buck’s traction. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Buck’s traction, weights must hang freely off the floor to maintain proper traction force. Turning is limited, traction is not removed, and lotion is unnecessary.
Question 4 of 5
Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemia. Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client receiving Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for Hodgkin's lymphoma finds the following: WBC 4,200, RBC 3,800,000, platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0 mg. The nurse recognizes that the greatest risk for the client at this time is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia, posing a significant risk of bleeding, which is the greatest immediate concern compared to infection, anemia, or renal failure.