NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client being treated with sodium warfarin (Coumadin) has a prothrombin time of 120 seconds. The nurse recognizes that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A prothrombin time of 120 seconds is excessively prolonged indicating a high bleeding risk. Close monitoring for bleeding (e.g. bruising hematuria) is critical. The dosage is not inadequate vitamin K restriction is routine and doubling doses is dangerous.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a fractured leg is exhibiting shortness of breath, pain upon deep breathing, and hemoptysis. What do these clinical manifestations indicate to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath, pleuritic pain, and hemoptysis are classic signs of pulmonary embolus, often associated with immobility from a fracture. CHF (
A) causes edema, ARDS (
C) causes diffuse respiratory failure, and tension pneumothorax (
D) causes tracheal deviation.
Question 3 of 5
The initial treatment for a client with a liquid chemical burn injury is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The use of large amounts of water to flush the area is recommended for chemical burns to dilute and remove the chemical. Neutralizing solutions may extend the burn, calcium chloride is not indicated, and lanolin is not beneficial initially.
Question 4 of 5
The client is scheduled for a cardiac CTA. Prior to the cardiac CTA, the nurse should do which of the following?
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Cardiac CTA involves contrast dye, so checking creatinine (
A) assesses kidney function to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy. Shellfish allergies (
B) may indicate iodine sensitivity. Consent (
C) is required for invasive procedures. Hearing issues (
D) and water intake (E) are less critical.
Question 5 of 5
The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, 'My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me.' The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This response does not acknowledge the client's feelings and may increase his feelings of guilt. This response denotes false reassurance. This response acknowledges the client's feelings and invites a response. This response changes the subject and does not allow the client to talk about his feelings.