NCLEX-RN
Practice NCLEX RN Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically causes sudden, severe lower quadrant pain due to internal bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
A client has experienced 48 hours of severe repeated bouts of vomiting. Which acid-base imbalance is of most concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe vomiting causes loss of gastric acid, leading to metabolic alkalosis (
D). Respiratory imbalances (A,
B) and metabolic acidosis (
C) are less likely.
Question 3 of 5
The physician has prescribed imipramine (ToFranil) for a client with depression. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's affect because the maximal effects of tricyclic antidepressant medication do not occur for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants like imipramine take 2-4 weeks to reach maximal therapeutic effect, requiring ongoing monitoring of the client's mood.
Question 4 of 5
If a group includes only members selected on a specific basis, such as women with a history of domestic or partner abuse, how is this type of group classified?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A group with members sharing a specific characteristic, like domestic abuse history, is homogeneous (
A). Closed (
B) refers to membership limits, heterogeneous (
C) to diversity, and task (
D) to purpose.
Question 5 of 5
A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: symptoms of hypoglycemia, normal blood sugar 70-110 mg/dL