NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is receiving a continuous infusion of propofol (Diprivan) for sedation. Which assessment is most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propofol can cause respiratory depression, so monitoring respiratory rate is critical to detect apnea or hypoventilation. Blood pressure, pulse, and temperature are monitored but are less immediate concerns.
Question 2 of 5
The best diagnostic test for treponema pallidum is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The fluorescent treponemal antibody (FT
A) test is the most specific and sensitive for detecting Treponema pallidum (syphilis). VDRL and RPR are non-treponemal tests used for screening and Thayer-Martin culture is for gonorrhea.
Question 3 of 5
The primary cause of anemia in a client with chronic renal failure is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic renal failure reduces erythropoietin production, impairing red blood cell production and causing anemia. Iron absorption, RBC destruction, and intrinsic factor are secondary or unrelated.
Question 4 of 5
A client has received preoperative teaching for the vertical partial laryngectomy that he is scheduled to have in the morning. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the client states:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client will have minimal difficulty swallowing after a vertical partial laryngectomy, indicating effective preoperative teaching. Special swallowing training is typically required for supraglottic (horizontal partial) laryngectomy, not vertical. Voice quality will be altered, and radical neck dissection is associated with total laryngectomy.
Question 5 of 5
A 16-year-old client reports a weight loss of 20% of her previous weight. She has a history of food binges followed by self-induced vomiting (purging). The nurse should suspect a diagnosis of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bulimia is characterized by binge eating followed by purging, such as self-induced vomiting, leading to significant weight loss.