NCLEX Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

The client is admitted with a diagnosis of molar pregnancy. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Molar pregnancy involves abnormal trophoblastic tissue and no viable fetus often causing vaginal bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding is critical.
Tocolytics cesarean delivery and fetal monitoring are not indicated.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is evaluating the laboratory value results of a client after a craniotomy for a pituitary tumor. Which values cause the nurse to suspect a diabetes insipidus complication?

A. Low urine specific gravity B. Serum sodium of 158 mEq/L C. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L D. Hemoglobin of 13.6 g/dL E. Normal serum chloride level

Correct Answer: A, B

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus causes dilute urine (low specific gravity,
A) and hypernatremia (158 mEq/L,
B) from excessive water loss. Potassium (
C), hemoglobin (
D), and chloride (E) are normal and unrelated.

Question 3 of 5

Which statement describes the contagious stage of varicella?

A. The contagious stage is one day before the onset of the rash until the appearance of vesicles. B. The contagious stage lasts during the vesicular and crusting stages of the lesions. C. The contagious stage is from the onset of the rash until the rash disappears. D. The contagious stage is one day before the onset of the rash until all the lesions are crusted.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Varicella (chickenpox) is contagious from 1-2 days before the rash until all lesions are crusted, as the virus is shed during this period. Earlier or later stages are less contagious.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse has just received the change of shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

A. A client with a supratentorial tumor awaiting surgery B. A client admitted with a suspected subdural hematoma C. A client recently diagnosed with akinetic seizures D. A client transferring to the neuro rehabilitation unit

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A suspected subdural hematoma is a medical emergency due to potential brain compression, requiring immediate assessment.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a gastrointestinal bleed has an NG tube to low continuous wall suction. Which technique is the correct procedure for the nurse to utilize when assessing bowel sounds?

A. Obtain a sample of the NG drainage and test the pH. B. Clamp the tube while listening to the abdomen with a stethoscope. C. Irrigate the tube with 30 mL of NS while auscultating the abdomen. D. Turn the suction on high and auscultate over the naval area.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clamping the NG tube prevents suction noise, allowing accurate auscultation of bowel sounds. pH testing (
A) assesses gastric contents, irrigation (
C) is for patency, and high suction (
D) interferes with auscultation.