NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Tests Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client has increased intracranial pressure with cerebral edema, and mannitol is administered. Which assessment should the nurse make to evaluate if a complication from the mannitol is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pitting edema indicates fluid overload, a potential mannitol complication due to fluid shifts. High urine output is expected, and improving Glasgow Coma Scale is a therapeutic effect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who had thoracic surgery yesterday and has a chest tube attached to water seal drainage. The client's family asks why he has to have a chest tube. What should the nurse include in the response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chest tubes remove air/fluid from the pleural cavity, allowing lung reexpansion post-thoracic surgery. Other options misrepresent the tube's function.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is giving home care to an elderly client with angina pectoris and Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which observation is of most concern and should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chest discomfort in a client with angina suggests possible cardiac ischemia, requiring immediate reporting to prevent myocardial infarction. Brown spots, toenail pain, or exertional dyspnea are less urgent.
Question 4 of 5
Which nursing intervention is most critical during the administration of Acyclovir (Zovirax)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause renal toxicity; encouraging fluids promotes renal perfusion and reduces risk of crystal formation in the kidneys.
Question 5 of 5
An adult woman who broke her right ankle is seen in the physician's office one week after the cast was applied. Which observation indicates to the office nurse that the client is using crutches correctly?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The four-point crutch gait (left crutch, right foot, right crutch, left foot) is stable and correct for a non-weight-bearing right ankle, ensuring balance and safety.