NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Question Bank Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The antidote for heparin is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Protamine sulfate rapidly reverses heparin's anticoagulant effects by binding to it, neutralizing its activity.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function tests should be monitored regularly to detect potential liver damage early.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a manic phase. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A quiet environment reduces stimuli, helping to calm a client in a manic phase.
Question 4 of 5
A new mother was administered methylergonovine maleate intramuscularly after delivery. The nurse understands that this medication was administered for which action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methylergonovine maleate, an oxytocic, is an agent used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. The first dose is usually administered intramuscularly, and then if it needs to be continued, it is given by mouth. It increases the strength and frequency of contractions and may elevate blood pressure. There is no relationship between the action of this medication and lochia drainage.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of antimicrobial therapy for a client diagnosed with infective endocarditis. The nurse determines that which finding is the least reliable indicator of effectiveness?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A systolic heart murmur, once present in the client, will not resolve spontaneously and is therefore the least reliable indicator. Clear breath sounds are a normal finding, and in this instance could mean resolution of heart failure, if that was accompanying the endocarditis. Negative blood cultures and normothermia indicate resolution of infection.