NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX-PN Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The 21-year-old who has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) asks about changes she could make to help control her disease. Which statement is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A. Although an anti-inflammatory medication such as ibuprofen (Advil) may help reduce pelvic pain, this is not a lifestyle change. B. Oral contraceptives are useful in regulating the menstrual cycle for clients with PCOS and are utilized (not avoided) to treat this syndrome. C. Maintaining a monogamous sexual relationship will not impact PCOS. D. Obesity exacerbates insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia associated with PCOS.
Question 2 of 5
Which instruction is appropriate for the nurse to give the client who is undergoing external radiation therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Avoiding powders, deodorants, or ointments prevents skin irritation in the radiation area, protecting the skin during therapy.
Question 3 of 5
The 1-year-old with a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C) is diagnosed with roseola. Which information should the nurse provide to the parent? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: Roseola is characterized by a high fever followed by a rose-pink rash after the fever subsides. Hand hygiene reduces transmission. Aspirin is contraindicated due to Reye's syndrome risk, oatmeal baths are not typically needed, and isolation beyond standard precautions is unnecessary.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old female receives treatment for primary amenorrhea caused by hyperthyroidism. Which finding during a clinic visit should indicate to the nurse that treatment for amenorrhea was effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. An increased weight may help with initiating a menstrual cycle if the cause is a body fat composition of less than 10%, but this does not indicate that the woman has started her menstrual cycle. B. If the client is not menstruating (amenorrhea), she will not have menstrual cramps. C. Hyperthyroidism and a body fat composition of less than 10% can be contributing factors to amenorrhea (absence of menses). The start of a menstrual cycle indicates that treatment of the underlying cause of amenorrhea is effective. D. The absence of a fine hand tremor may indicate treatment is effective for the hyperthyroidism. It does not indicate that the primary amenorrhea is resolved.
Question 5 of 5
A 52-year-old man is admitted to the psychiatric unit. He states that he does not sleep well, has not been eating, and has no energy. He tells the admitting nurse, 'I don't think you can make me feel better. There's no use in talking to me. Leave me alone.' What is the most appropriate interpretation of his behavior?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: His symptoms and request for isolation suggest depression, requiring the nurse's presence to ensure safety and offer support.