NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN High-Yield Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Long-term administration of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) to a client has been discontinued. The nurse should assess which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin can cause ototoxicity, affecting the vestibular system, so a vestibular check in 3 to 4 weeks is necessary to assess for balance issues. The other options are not directly related to gentamicin's side effects.
Question 2 of 5
You are caring for a client who has been taking illicit amphetamines and states that they continue to use this illicit drug because they 'suffer and feel lousy' when they try to stop taking it. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of feeling 'lousy' when stopping the drug indicate physical dependence, as the body has adapted to the presence of amphetamines, leading to withdrawal symptoms upon cessation.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which requires monitoring.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is administering a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which technique ensures safe administration?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pinching the skin creates a fold for subcutaneous injection, ensuring heparin is delivered into the correct tissue layer without damaging underlying structures.
Question 5 of 5
Your client has a doctor's order for 1200 mLs of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. Your shift began at 8 am and there were 600 mLs remaining in the intravenous fluid bag. How many mLs would you expect to see at 12 noon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate: 1,200 mL ÷ 8 hours = 150 mL/hr. From 8 AM to 12 noon (4 hours), 4 × 150 = 600 mL infused. Starting with 600 mL, 600 - 600 = 0 mL remaining.