NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
A nursing assistant states that her five-year-old child has developed chickenpox.
Question 1 of 5
It would be MOST important for the nurse to ask which of the following questions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: 'MOST important' indicates there may be more than one answer that you would like to select. Remember, you can only ask one question. (1) chickenpox spread by direct contact, airborne route; not the most important question (2) fever, malaise, and anorexia occur during first 24 hours; treat with Tylenol (3) correct-need to ascertain if staff has had the disease; if not, VZIG can be given; exclude from patient care from the 10th day after first exposure through the 21st day (28th day if VZIG given) after last exposure (4) important information, but assessing staff is most important
Extract:
A 35-year-old woman receiving metronidazole (Flagyl) 250 mg PO tid for 7 days.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following statements, if made by the woman, would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: 'Teaching has been effective' indicates a correct statement. (1) given with meals to decrease GI upset (2) correct-causes Antabuse-like reaction of nausea and vomiting, headache, cramps, flushing (3) frequently seen, not a problem (4) sensitivity to sun not seen with this medication
Extract:
A client has returned to the floor from thyroidectomy surgery.
Question 3 of 5
After a client has returned to the floor from thyroidectomy surgery, it is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require assessment? Yes. Determine what assessment is being made in each answer choice. (1) assessment is not specific to this surgery (2) assessment, method used to monitor for postoperative hemorrhage in a tonsillectomy client (3) correct-assessment, after surgery, swelling can occur, which causes respiratory distress (4) implementation, head of the bed should be elevated
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A client with MRSA is receiving Vanomycin (Vancocin) IV. If the client experiences 'red man' syndrome, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is caused by rapid vancomycin infusion, leading to histamine release. Slowing the infusion and monitoring blood pressure manage symptoms. It's not normal, and discontinuing is unnecessary.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of type 2 diabetes who is receiving exenatide (Byetta) 10 mcg SC bid. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Upper abdominal pain may indicate pancreatitis, a serious exenatide side effect. Options A, C, and D are less urgent: nausea is common, thirst is expected, and fatigue is nonspecific.