NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is admitted to the unit with the following lab values. Which of the following lab values should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A $\mathrm{PO}_2$ of 72% indicates severe hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. BUN, hemoglobin, and WBC values are less urgent.
Question 2 of 5
A 3-year-old with coarctation of the aorta is scheduled for corrective surgery. Which preoperative lab result should be reported to the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A WBC of 14,000 suggests possible infection, which should be reported before surgery, so B is correct. HCT 48% , platelet count 200,000 , and RBC 5.3 are within normal ranges.
Extract:
At an inpatient psychiatric unit, a 40-year-old woman insists on staying in her room and repeatedly comments to the nurse: 'Special agents are here. Maybe you are one.'
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following responses, if made by the nurse, is BEST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Remember therapeutic communication. (1) nontherapeutic, fails to respond to feeling tone, trust builds through interactions (2) correct-patient experiencing delusion (persistent false belief), responds to feeling tone, acknowledges that patient believes it to be true, represents reality (3) statement of reassurance, but denies acceptance of patient's feelings (4) should not encourage patient to explain delusions, would serve to reinforce them
Extract:
An adolescent for a lumbar puncture.
Question 4 of 5
It is MOST important that the nurse make which of the following statements?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) general anesthetic is not used (2) fluids are not restricted before the Test (3) correct-to prevent a post-lumbar puncture headache, client should remain flat in bed for eight hours after the Test (4) inappropriate for this procedure
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A prenatal client tests positive for chlamydia in her ninth month. She asks why she should be treated since she does not have symptoms. The nurse should tell the client that if she is not treated before delivery, there is a risk of which problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Untreated chlamydia can cause neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum) during vaginal delivery, necessitating treatment to prevent infant complications.