NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
During the intake assessment,a client reports that she has a painful blister on the labia. The client's symptoms are likely the result of infection with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Herpes simplex virus type II (HSV-II) typically causes painful blisters or vesicles on the genitalia such as the labia. Syphilis causes painless chancres gonorrhea causes discharge and condylomata (HPV-related warts) are usually painless.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is administering Dilantin (phenytoin) via a nasogastric (NG) tube. When giving the medication, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with 5 mL of normal saline before administering phenytoin ensures tube patency and prevents clogging, maintaining effective delivery.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and leg edema. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a diuretic, reduces fluid overload in heart failure, relieving shortness of breath and edema. Metoprolol (
A) manages heart rate, Warfarin (
C) prevents clots, and Atorvastatin (
D) lowers cholesterol, but none address fluid directly.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with a history of type 1 diabetes about insulin storage. The nurse should tell the client to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Refrigerating unopened insulin vials preserves potency, ensuring effective diabetes management.
Question 5 of 5
A 52-year-old client's abdominal aortic aneurysm ruptured. She received rapid massive blood transfusions for bleeding. One potential complication of blood administration for which she is especially at risk is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Massive transfusions can cause hypocalcemia due to citrate in stored blood binding with calcium, especially in rapid transfusions.