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Questions 158

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Question 1 of 5

At 30 weeks' gestation, a client is admitted to the unit in premature labor. Her contractions are every 5 minutes and last 60 seconds, her cervix is closed, and the suture placed around her cervix during her 16th week of gestation, when she had the MacDonald procedure, can still be felt by the physician. The amniotic sac is still intact. She is very concerned about delivering prematurely. She asks the RN, 'What is the greatest risk to my baby if it is born prematurely?' The RN's answer should be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Any infant would be at risk for hyperglycemia because the infant's liver is missing the islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin to break down glucose for cellular use. Prematurity is not an added risk for hyperglycemia. Both premature and mature infants can be at risk for hypoglycemia if their mother had gestational diabetes during pregnancy or entered the pregnancy with diabetes mellitus. These infants are exposed to high levels of maternal glucose while in utero, which causes the islets of Langerhans in the infant's liver to produce insulin. After birth when the umbilical cord is severed, the generous amount of maternal blood glucose is eliminated; however, there is continued islet cell hyperactivity in the infant's liver, which can lead to excessive insulin levels and depleted blood glucose. Mature infants are born with an immature GI system. The nervous control of the stomach is incomplete at birth, salivary glands are immature at birth, and the intestinal tract is sterile. This is not the greatest risk to a premature infant. The greatest risk to a premature infant is the lack of development of the lungs, which can lead to respiratory distress syndrome due to insufficient surfactant production.

Question 2 of 5

Nursing care for the substance abuse client experiencing alcohol withdrawal delirium includes:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: These clients are at high risk for seizures during the 1st week after cessation of alcohol intake. Fluid intake should be increased to prevent dehydration. Environmental stimuli should be decreased to prevent precipitation of seizures. Application of restraints may cause the client to increase his or her physical activity and may eventually lead to exhaustion.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following would differentiate acute from chronic respiratory acidosis in the assessment of the trauma client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Increased PaCO2 is present in both acute and chronic respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation. Decreased PaO2 may occur in respiratory acidosis but does not differentiate acute from chronic. Increased HCO3 indicates renal compensation, which occurs in chronic respiratory acidosis as the body attempts to buffer the excess CO2, but not in acute cases where compensation has not yet occurred. Decreased base excess is not specific to differentiating acute from chronic respiratory acidosis.

Question 4 of 5

A female client is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following signs indicate a possible pneumothorax?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: With a pneumothorax, air occupies the pleural space. Crackles or rales are heard with increased fluid or secretions and would not be present with air in the space. With a pneumothorax, the client would experience tachypnea and tachycardia to compensate for the decrease in oxygenation. Symptoms of pneumothorax include shortness of breath, sharp pain on the affected side with movement or coughing, asymmetrical chest expansion, and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. With a pneumothorax, breath sounds would be decreased on the affected side (indicates air in the pleural space).

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of a heart failure is receiving Furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, risking hypokalemia, requiring monitoring. Hyperglycemia, hypertension, and weight gain are not primary concerns.

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