NCLEX Questions, NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 158

NCLEX-RN

Home > NCLEX-RN > NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

An infant weighing 15 lb has just been treated for severe diarrhea in the hospital. Discharge instructions by the nurse will include maintenance fluid requirements for the pediatric client. Which of the following values best indicates the nurse's understanding of normal fluid requirements for this infant?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: (A, C,
D) These answers are incorrect. Normal fluid requirement for this pediatric client is based on the fact that 0-10 kg of weight equals 100 mL/kg per day. This infant weighs 15 pounds (6.8 kg). Thus, 100 mL × 6.8 = 680 mL/day.

Question 2 of 5

A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often delayed because of the varied symptoms experienced by those affected with the disease. Which symptom is most common in those with multiple sclerosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Double vision (diplopia) is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination affecting the optic nerves or brainstem.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a history of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lithium requires monitoring of serum lithium levels to ensure therapeutic range (0.6–1.2 mEq/L) and prevent toxicity. Sodium (
A), BUN (
B), and A1c (
D) are secondary.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected Cushing’s syndrome. Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome causes cortisol excess, leading to a moon-shaped face due to fat redistribution. Weight gain, hypertension, and tachycardia are more common than weight loss, hypotension, or bradycardia.

Question 5 of 5

Which one of the following lab tests should be done periodically if the client is being maintained on warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored by INR (derived from prothrombin time), but periodic platelet counts are also checked to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect. White cell, neutrophil, and basophil counts are less relevant.

Similar Questions

Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, 'I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
The physician has ordered Basaljel (aluminum carbonate gel) for a client with recurrent indigestion. The nurse should teach the client common side effects of the medication, which include:
A 26-year-old client is in a treatment center for alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and continues to manifest moderate levels of anxiety 3 weeks into the rehabilitation program, often requesting medication for 'his nerves.' Included in the client's plan of care is to identify alternate methods of coping with stress and anxiety other than use of medication. After intervening with assistance in stress reduction techniques, identifying feelings and past coping, the nurse evaluates the outcome as being met if:
A parent told the public health nurse that her 6-year-old son has been taking tetracycline for a chronic skin condition. The parent asked if this could cause any problems for the child. What should the nurse explain to the parent?
A client was not using his seat belt when involved in a car accident. He fractured ribs 5, 6, and 7 on the left and developed a left pneumothorax. Assessment findings include:

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic

$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium

$150/ 90 days