NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, 'I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This response does not acknowledge the client's feelings. This is a closed question and does not encourage communication. This response negates the client's feelings and does not require a response from the client. This acknowledges the client's implied thoughts and feelings and encourages a response.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and leg edema. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a diuretic, reduces fluid overload in heart failure, relieving shortness of breath and edema. Metoprolol (
A) manages heart rate, Warfarin (
C) prevents clots, and Atorvastatin (
D) lowers cholesterol, but none address fluid directly.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who has received the drug Daunorubicin (Cerubidine). Which of the following common side effects would cause the most concern?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cardiotoxicity, a serious side effect of Daunorubicin, can lead to heart failure and requires immediate attention. Nausea (
A), vomiting (
B), and alopecia (
D) are common but less life-threatening.
Question 4 of 5
A couple is planning the conception of their first child. The wife, whose normal menstrual cycle is 34 days in length, correctly identifies the time that she is most likely to ovulate if she states that ovulation should occur on day:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ovulation occurs 14 ± 2 days before the next menses; in a 34-day cycle, this is day 20 ± 2.
Question 5 of 5
The physician has ordered an infusion of Osmitrol (mannitol) for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which finding indicates the direct effectiveness of the drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces intracranial pressure by increasing urinary output, drawing fluid from the brain.