NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Tests Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An adult woman who broke her right ankle is seen in the physician's office one week after the cast was applied. Which observation indicates to the office nurse that the client is using crutches correctly?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The four-point crutch gait (left crutch, right foot, right crutch, left foot) is stable and correct for a non-weight-bearing right ankle, ensuring balance and safety.
Question 2 of 5
Because an adult is scheduled for a cystoscopy, the nurse should plan to do which of the following immediately prior to the procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cystoscopy may involve iodine-based contrast; shellfish allergies suggest iodine sensitivity, requiring verification. NPO is not needed, claustrophobia is irrelevant, and fluids are not prioritized immediately before.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a fiberglass cast applied to a distal fracture of the right tibia. The client should be able to bear weight on the cast within:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fiberglass casts typically require 24 hours to fully dry and harden before weight-bearing.
Choices A, B, and C are too short for the cast to achieve sufficient strength.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse caring for a client with a central venous catheter (CVC) enters the client’s room and notes that the CVC is dislodged and lying in the client’s bed linens. The client appears cyanotic and is tachypneic and diaphoretic. Which of the following actions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Oxygen, occlusive dressing, vital sign monitoring, and provider notification address air embolism risk and hypoxia. High Fowler may worsen air entry; semi-Fowler is preferred.
Extract:
Medication administration record
Allergies: None
Medications Time
Haloperidol: 5 mg PO, twice a day 0900, 2100
Hydrochlorothiazide: 25 mg PO, daily 0900
Omeprazole: 20 mg PO, daily 0900
Acetaminophen: 650 mg PO, PRN Every 6 hours
Question 5 of 5
The nurse on the inpatient psychiatric unit is preparing to administer 9 AM medications to a client. On assessment, the client is exhibiting signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics like haloperidol, requiring immediate cessation and provider notification. Acetaminophen, continuing medications, or holding hydroxyzine do not address the emergency.