NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An 18-year-old client enters the emergency room complaining of coughing, chest tightness, dyspnea, and sputum production. On physical assessment, the nurse notes agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. These signs should alert the nurse to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is an accumulation of air in the pleural space. Important physical assessment findings to confirm this condition include cyanosis, jugular vein distention, absent breath sounds on the affected side, distant heart sounds, and lowered blood pressure. Asthma is a disorder in which there is an airflow obstruction in the bronchioles and smaller bronchi secondary to bronchospasm, swelling of mucous membranes, and increased mucus production. Physical assessment reveals some important findings: agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. Pneumonia is an acute bacterial or viral infection that causes inflammation of the lung in the alveolar and interstitial tissue and results in consolidation. Specific assessment findings to confirm this condition include decreased chest expansion caused by pleuritic pain, dullness on percussion over consolidated areas, decreased breath sounds, and increased vocal fremitus. A pulmonary embolus is the passage of a foreign substance (blood clot, fat, air, or amniotic fluid) into the pulmonary artery or its branches, with subsequent obstruction of blood supply to lung tissue. Specific assessment findings that confirm this condition include tachypnea, tachycardia, crackles (rales), transient friction rub, diaphoresis, edema, and cyanosis.
Question 2 of 5
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Contractions five minutes apart lasting 30-60 seconds indicate the onset of active labor. Two-minute contractions suggest advanced labor and back pain or urination are less specific signs.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of schizophrenia. The nurse should expect the client to have:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schizophrenia is characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking, with hallucinations being a common symptom.
Question 4 of 5
The pediatrician has diagnosed tinea capitis in an 8-year-old girl and has placed her on oral griseofulvin. The nurse should emphasize which of these instructions to the mother and/or child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Giving the drug with or after meals may allay gastrointestinal discomfort. Giving the drug with a fatty meal (ice cream or milk) increases absorption rate. Griseofulvin may alter taste sensations and thereby decrease the appetite. Monitoring of food intake is important, and inadequate nutrient intake should be reported to the physician. The child may experience symptomatic relief after 48-96 hours of therapy. It is important to stress continuing the drug therapy to prevent relapse (usually about 6 weeks). The incidence of side effects is low; however, headaches are common. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia may occur. Dizziness, although uncommon, should be reported to the physician.
Question 5 of 5
MgSO4 is ordered IV following the established protocol for a client with severe PIH. The anticipated effects of this therapy are anticonvulsant and:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. However, we would not want to increase the vasoconstriction that is already present. This would make the symptoms more severe. An anticonvulsant effect and vasodilation are the desired outcomes when administering this drug. An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH; however, hypertensive drugs would increase the blood pressure even more. An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. MgSO4 is not classified as an antiemetic. Antiemetics are not indicated for PIH treatment.