NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. The depressed client has a tendency for self-violence, not violence toward others. Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior.
Question 2 of 5
The mother of a one-year-old wants to know when she should begin toilet-training her child. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that sufficient sphincter control for toilet training is present by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sufficient sphincter control for toilet training typically develops between 18-24 months, when children gain the physical and cognitive ability to control urination and defecation.
Question 3 of 5
A female client plans to bottle-feed her newborn. Her physician has ordered bromocriptine (Parlodel) to suppress lactation. Which of the following instructions about bromocriptine should be given by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bromocriptine inhibits the secretion of prolactin. Hypotension is a side effect of this drug; hypertension is not. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 14 days. The administration of bromocriptine is delayed at least 4 hours postpartum and given only when the client's blood pressure is stable, because it can cause hypotension and syncope.
Question 4 of 5
The health team needs to realize that the compulsive concern with cleanliness that a client with severe anxiety exhibits is most likely an attempt to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: These behaviors are attempts to relieve anxiety, as compulsive actions often serve as a coping mechanism for severe anxiety.
Question 5 of 5
The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension (BP 90/50), tachycardia (pulse 132), and tachypnea (respirations 30) indicate potential shock or hemorrhage post-surgery, requiring immediate physician notification. Monitoring is secondary, and delegating or asking about feelings delays intervention.