NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 7 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A woman at 38-weeks gestation comes to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, as the placenta covers the cervical os. The statement ‘I feel fine, but the bleeding scares me’ indicates bleeding without pain, consistent with placenta previa. Nausea, activity-related bleeding, or cramps suggest other causes like abruptio placentae.
Extract:
The nurse has just received report from the previous shift.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following patients should the nurse see FIRST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Determine the least stable client. (1) leg needs to be abducted at all times, ice to operative site, turn patient as ordered (2) correct-life-threatening condition which can last longer than 24 hours, constantly monitor client (3) requires follow-up, assess breath sounds (4) monitor vital signs, I and O, teach to modify lifestyle (stop smoking, reduce stress, modify intake of calories, fat, and salt)
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The home care nurse has been managing a client for 6 weeks. What is the best method to determine the quality of care provided by a home health care aide assigned to assist with the care of this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although the nurse must complete all of the above responsibilities, evaluation of an adherence to the plan of care is the first priority. The plan of care is based on the reason for referral, provider's orders, the initial nursing assessment, the client's responses to the planned interventions, and the client's and family's feedback or inquiries.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for an adult who is admitted in right heart failure. Which observation is most consistent with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Right heart failure causes systemic venous congestion, leading to distended neck veins due to increased jugular venous pressure. Facial edema, renal failure, and constipation are less specific to right heart failure.
Question 5 of 5
A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 400 mg/day for four weeks. He experiences an oral temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), severe rigidity, oculogyric crisis, and severe hypertension. It is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a life-threatening reaction to chlorpromazine. Holding the drug and notifying staff is critical. Options A, C, and D address symptoms but not the cause.