NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 6 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A postoperative client has pain medication ordered PRN for discomfort. During the first assessment, the nurse notes that the client has not received pain medication all day. His vital signs are within normal limits, but he is sweating profusely. He smiles at you while speaking and states that he is not hot but is still experiencing some pain and has been since early this morning. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the minimum dose and reassessing ensures effective pain management while monitoring response, given diaphoresis and reported pain.
Question 2 of 5
To prevent symptoms of Raynaud's, the client should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Avoiding cold exposure is key to preventing vasospasms in Raynaud's disease, which cause symptoms like numbness and color changes in the extremities.
Question 3 of 5
A high school nurse observes a 14 year-old female rubbing her scalp excessively in the gym. The most appropriate course of action for the nurse to do is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Observation of the student's hair is the next step.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should explain to a client that tolbutamide (Orinase) is effective for diabetics who
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Tolbutamide, an oral hypoglycemic, is effective for type II diabetics who produce minimal insulin, enhancing insulin release. Type I diabetics (no insulin production) require insulin injections, and the other options do not align with tolbutamide’s mechanism or indications.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV gentamicin for a gram-negative infection. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL indicates nephrotoxicity, a serious gentamicin side effect. Options B, C, and D are normal.