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Questions 164

NCLEX-PN

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Extract:

Laboratory Results
Glucose - Fasting
70–110 mg/dL
(3.9–6.1 mmol/L) 650 mg/dL
(36.1 mmol/L)


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for 4 clients. Which prescription by the health care provider would the nurse question and seek further clarification before administering?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 0.45% saline is appropriate for gastroenteritis to replace fluids. 0.9% saline bolus treats anaphylactic shock. Mannitol reduces intracranial pressure. A 1000 mL bolus for DKA is excessive; smaller boluses (e.g., 250-500 mL) are safer to avoid fluid overload.

Extract:


Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for an adult male who is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). Which complaint by the client is of most concern to the nurse and should be immediately reported?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Leg cramping and restlessness suggest akathisia, a serious extrapyramidal side effect of haloperidol, requiring immediate reporting.

Question 3 of 5

Propranolol is prescribed for an adult suspected to have Graves' disease. The nurse explains to the client that propranolol is prescribed for which purpose?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate, controlling tachycardia in Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). It does not affect thyroid activity, provide hormones, or regulate metabolism.

Question 4 of 5

The registered nurse (RN) is making decisions regarding client room assignments on a pediatric unit. Which possible roommate would be most appropriate for a 3 year-old child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Children with nephrotic syndrome are at high risk for development of infections as a result of the standard use of immunosuppressant therapy, as well as from the accumulation of fluid (edema).
Therefore, these children must be protected from sources of possible infection.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse reinforces discharge teaching to a client who had a total knee replacement 4 days ago. Which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Self-administered anticoagulant injections require confirmation of correct technique, not spousal fear, indicating misunderstanding. Walker use , symptom reporting , and toilet aids are correct.

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