NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Tests Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A father suspected of child abuse tells the nurse, 'I shouldn't have grabbed him so hard. I had a really bad day at work and got all stressed out. The kid just wouldn't listen to me.' The defense mechanism used by the father is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Displacement involves redirecting emotions (stress from work) onto a less threatening target (child). Projection, undoing, and compensation do not apply.
Extract:
Laboratory results
Glucose (fasting)
70–110 mg/dL
(3.9–6.1 mmol/L) 126 mg/dL
(7.0 mmol/L)
Question 2 of 5
The nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a 40-year-old client with acromegaly. Which of the following findings would be most important to report to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: S3 and S4 heart sounds indicate heart failure, a serious complication of acromegaly due to cardiac hypertrophy, requiring urgent reporting. Skin changes, glucose levels, and knee pain are expected but less critical.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury who has increased ICP. The physician plans to reduce the cerebral edema by reversing dilation of cerebral blood vessels. Which physician prescription would the nurse expect to accomplish this?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperventilation is utilized to decrease the PCO2 to 27-30, producing cerebral blood vessel constriction. Answers B, C, and D can decrease cerebral edema, but not by constriction of cerebral blood vessels; therefore, they are wrong.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unequal leg length. Shortening of the affected leg is a sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Extract:
Medication administration record
Allergies: None
Medications Time
Haloperidol: 5 mg PO, twice a day 0900, 2100
Hydrochlorothiazide: 25 mg PO, daily 0900
Omeprazole: 20 mg PO, daily 0900
Acetaminophen: 650 mg PO, PRN Every 6 hours
Question 5 of 5
The nurse on the inpatient psychiatric unit is preparing to administer 9 AM medications to a client. On assessment, the client is exhibiting signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics like haloperidol, requiring immediate cessation and provider notification. Acetaminophen, continuing medications, or holding hydroxyzine do not address the emergency.