NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with pregnancy-induced hypertension is scheduled for a C-section. Before surgery, the nurse should keep the client:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The left lateral position improves uteroplacental blood flow in pregnancy-induced hypertension, reducing fetal distress risk. Right-sided, supine, or knee-chest positions are less optimal.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse should carefully monitor a client for the following side effect of MgSO4:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should provide good distractors because these symptoms indicate that PIH has become more severe and may precede the convulsive or eclamptic phase. This is the opposite side effect of this medication. This is a common side effect of this medication and needs to be monitored and recorded frequently.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following nursing care goals has the highest priority for a child with epiglottitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Of these four goals, maintenance of a calm, quiet atmosphere to reduce anxiety and to allow for rest is the most important. Although nutrition is important, the child needs fluids to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance more than solid foods. In addition, the child may not be able to swallow solid foods owing to epiglottic swelling. This goal is unrealistic because fever is a common symptom of the infection associated with epiglottitis. If overexerted, the child will need more O2 and energy than available, and these requirements may exacerbate the condition.
Question 4 of 5
A female client at 37 weeks' gestation has just undergone a nonstress test. The results were two fetal movements with a corresponding increase in fetal heart rate (FHR) of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. Her results would be classified as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A contraction stress test is unnecessary following a reactive (normal) nonstress test. The results are considered reactive, indicating that the fetus is not showing distress.
Therefore, a contraction stress test, which is a more in-depth test for fetal distress, is unnecessary. A nonreactive test would show fewer than two fetal movements or a failure of the FHR to increase at least 15 bpm with the movements in a 20-minute period. A contraction stress test should follow a nonreactive nonstress test to validate fetal distress.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cirrhosis impairs liver function, leading to portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia, causing lower extremity edema. Dilated pupils, warm skin, and bradycardia are not typical.