NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions, NCLEX-PN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

NCLEX-PN

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NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A client with a reactive depression has the greaTest chance of success in activities that require psychic and physical energy if the nurse schedules activities in the

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: client with reactive depression has the highest level of physical and psychic energy in the morning

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg, atropine sulfate (Atropesol) 0.4 mg, and promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Have the client empty bladder. The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to administering the pre-operative medication. The other actions follow this initial step in this sequence: D, C, B, A.
Note: It is much easier to administer IM meds with the side rails down, and then raising them when the nurse is done. Other activities can then be carried out more safely.

Question 3 of 5

A client is admitted with suspected fracture of the left hip. The most consistent finding in the client with the hip fracture is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Disalignment of the leg , such as shortening or external rotation, is the most consistent sign of a hip fracture. Pain is common but less specific. Pulses and sensation are typically intact.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse manager has been using a block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Nurses are more satisfied when opportunities exist for autonomy and control. Self-scheduling improves team morale by giving staff more control over their work schedules.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is performing an admission history for a client recovering from a stroke. Medication history reveals the drug clopidogrel (Plavix). Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to an adverse effect of this drug?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding, such as epistaxis (nosebleeds). Abdominal distention, nausea, and hyperactivity are not typical adverse effects of clopidogrel, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

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